Exam ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Review, Valid Test ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Braindumps
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APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Exam Syllabus Topics:
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APMG-International ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation Exam Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which factor is required to be determined when understanding the organization and its context?
- A. The processes that will be required to operate the ISMS
- B. The information security objectives relevant to the ISMS
- C. The ISO/IEC 27001 clauses which apply to the management system
- D. Internal issues affecting the purpose of the ISMS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 4.1 specifies exactly what must be determined when establishing context: "The organization shall determine external and internal issues that are relevant to its purpose and that affect its ability to achieve the intended outcome(s) of its information security management system." This requirement is about understanding internal and external issues (e.g., culture, capabilities, regulatory environment) that influence the ISMS's effectiveness. Objectives (option B) are addressed later in Clause 6.2; processes (option C) are addressed in Clause 4.4 and operational planning; and "which clauses apply" (option D) is not a determination step-ISO/IEC 27001's requirements in Clauses 4-10 are not optional. Therefore, the direct, required factor per 4.1 is determining internal (and external) issues relevant to the organization's purpose and ISMS outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which statement about the conduct of audits is true?
- A. During Stage 1 of a certification audit, evidence is collected by observing activities
- B. One of the focus areas for a surveillance audit is the output from internal audits and management reviews
- C. Third party audits are conducted by a customer of the organization
- D. The certificate issued after a successful re-certification audit in typical schemes lasts for one year
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit) and Clause 9.3 (Management Review) highlight that audit outputs and management reviews are key inputs for evaluating ISMS performance. Surveillance audits, conducted by Certification Bodies, check ongoing compliance and effectiveness. ISO certification schemes (per ISO/IEC
17021) require surveillance audits to verify whether corrective actions and continuous improvements are being made. A critical focus area is theresults of internal audits and management reviews, ensuring that the organization maintains its ISMS between certification cycles.
Option A is incorrect - third-party audits are performed by independent Certification Bodies, not customers.
Option B is incorrect - certificates are typically valid forthree yearswith annual surveillance. Option D is incorrect - Stage 1 is primarily adocumentation and readiness review, not evidence observation.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which audit activity related to ISO/IEC 27001 may be carried out by a practitioner?
- A. Conduct an internal audit of the organization
- B. Conduct an audit of a Certification Body
- C. Conduct a surveillance audit of their own area of the organization
- D. Conduct an audit of an Accredited Training Organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 requires internal audits and sets out how they must be conducted: "The organization shall conduct internal audits at planned intervals..." (9.2.1) and "plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s)... [and] select auditors and conduct audits that ensure objectivity and the impartiality of the audit process" (9.2.2). These extracts confirm that practitioners (internal to the organization) can conduct internal audits provided objectivity and impartiality are ensured (e.g., they do not audit their own work). Surveillance audits (option A) and audits of Accredited Training Organizations or Certification Bodies (options C, D) are third-party activities outside the remit of an internal practitioner under ISO/IEC 27001; the standard's audit requirement is focused on the organization's own internal audit programme. Therefore, conducting an internal audit (B) is the correct practitioner activity per Clause 9.2.
NEW QUESTION # 27
What is the definition of a threat according to ISO/IEC 27000?
- A. A potential cause of an unwanted incident which can result in harm to a system or organization
- B. A weakness of an asset or a control that can be exploited
- C. A single or a series of unwanted or unexpected information security events
- D. The risk remaining after risk treatment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27000 standards:
According to ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.74, athreatis defined as:
"Potential cause of an unwanted incident, which can result in harm to a system or organization." This definition directly matches option A.
* Option B refers to an "information security incident" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.32).
* Option C describes a "vulnerability" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.67).
* Option D refers to "residual risk" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.61).
The standard emphasizes that threats exploit vulnerabilities, causing incidents that can harm information confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Correctly identifying threats is critical for risk assessment (Clause
6.1.2). Thus, the correct definition per ISO/IEC 27000 isA.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which statement describes Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Defines a mandatory list of controls that shall be implemented
- B. Provides a reference list of information security controls and their requirements
- C. Defines the criteria for accepting risks
- D. Provides measures to determine risk treatment effectiveness
Answer: B
Explanation:
Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001:2022 is titled:
"Reference control objectives and controls." It provides areference list of information security controls, structured into 4 themes: organizational, people, physical, and technological.
The standard explicitly states in Clause 6.1.3: "Organizations can design controls as required or identify them from any source. Annex A contains a list of possible information security controls." This means controls in Annex A are not mandatory (eliminating option C). Risk acceptance criteria (A) are defined in Clause 6.1.2, not Annex A. Annex A also does not provide measures for treatment effectiveness (D).
Thus, Annex A is best described as areference list of information security controls. Correct answer:B.
NEW QUESTION # 29
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